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Syllabus

NEC Electronics · Practice

Chapters & sets

1. Basic Electrical and Electronics Engineering

Basic Electrical

Set 1106

Basic Electronics

Set 171 Set 233

2. Digital Logic and Microprocessor

Digital Logic

Set 150 Set 250 Set 350 Set 450 Set 550 Set 650 Set 749 Set 851 Set 950 Set 1050 Set 1150 Set 1232

Microprocessor

Set 150 Set 250 Set 350 Set 445 Set 550 Set 650 Set 720 Set 850 Set 969

3. Programming Language and Its Applications

Mixed chapter MCQs

Set 150 Set 249 Set 349 Set 451 Set 540

4. Computer Organization and Embedded Systems

Mixed chapter MCQs

Set 150 Set 249 Set 350 Set 450 Set 550 Set 650 Set 750 Set 849 Set 950 Set 1050 Set 1150

5. Computer Networks and Network Security

Basic Networking

Set 150 Set 253

Advanced Networking

Set 150 Set 250 Set 350 Set 450 Set 550 Set 655

10. Project Planning, Design and Implementation

Project Planning & Scheduling Set 1

88 questions

Question 1

Which of the following is defined as a set of activities which are networked in an order and aimed toward achieving the goals?

A.
Project
B.
Process
C.
Project Life Cycle
D.
None of the Above

Question 2

The project life cycle consists of?

A.
Understanding the scope of the project
B.
Formulation and planning various activities
C.
Both A & B
D.
Only A

Question 3

In Project management when does planning take place?

A.
Before the project
B.
During the project execution
C.
At the start of the project
D.
After the project

Question 4

Which of the following is the longest phase of the project management life cycle?

A.
Initiation
B.
Planning
C.
Execution
D.
Closing

Question 5

Which of the following phases is to establish the project’s objectives, scope, and feasibility?

A.
Initiation
B.
Planning
C.
Execution
D.
Monitoring and control

Question 6

Which of the following phases is to identify and mitigate risks, and to ensure that the project has the necessary resources and schedule?

A.
Initiation
B.
Planning
C.
Execution
D.
Monitoring and control

Question 7

Which of the following phases is to deliver the project’s objectives within the defined scope, schedule, and budget?

A.
Initiation
B.
Planning
C.
Execution
D.
Monitoring and control

Question 8

Which of the following is true?

A.
The project life cycle is the sequence of phases that a project goes through from its initiation to its closure
B.
The number and names of the phases can vary depending on the methodology used
C.
The goal of closure phase is to complete all project-related activities, and to document the project’s results and lessons learned.
D.
All of the Above

Question 9

Which of the following are series of steps taken by project managers to develop a detailed plan for a project?

A.
Define the project objectives and goals
B.
Develop a project scope statement
C.
Create a project schedule and plan
D.
All of the Above

Question 10

Feasibility study determines

A.
Whether the project is possible with resources
B.
Comparing the project with world class manufacturing norms
C.
Calculate the cost crashing each unit
D.
All of the Above

Question 11

Different techniques that can be used for project scheduling are

A.
Gantt charts, Critical path method (CPM)
B.
PERT and Work breakdown structure (WBS)
C.
Agile methodologies
D.
All of the Above

Question 12

Which of the following is true about Gantt chart?

A.
A Gantt chart is a visual representation of a project schedule that shows the start and end dates of each task
B.
It consists of a horizontal axis that represents time, and a vertical axis that lists all of the tasks that need to be completed for the project
C.
Gantt charts are useful for project managers because they provide a clear, visual representation of the project schedule
D.
All of the Above

Question 13

Advantage of a Gantt Chart is

A.
It is easy to draw
B.
Its ability to visually represent activities and times
C.
It depicts Project Life Cycle
D.
All of the Above

Question 14

Which of the following is true?

A.
A bar chart is used to compare and show data distribution across different categories
B.
Gantt chart is used to represent and manage the schedule of a project and its tasks
C.
Both of the Above
D.
None of the Above

Question 15

Which of the following is true?

A.
A bar chart and a Gantt chart are similar in that they both use horizontal bars to represent the duration and progress of tasks
B.
Bar charts are useful for quickly understanding the overall progress of a project
C.
A Gantt chart is a specialized type of bar chart that is commonly used in project management
D.
All of the Above

Question 16

When resources required by activities are deterministic the method used in Project Management is called

A.
PERT
B.
AOA
C.
CPM
D.
Event Management

Question 17

Full form of PERT is

A.
Project Evaluation and Review Technique
B.
Project Examination and Review Technique
C.
Project Evaluation and Risk Technique
D.
Project Evaluation and Review Tricks

Question 18

PERT (Project Evaluation and Review Technique) analysis is based on

A.
Optimistic time, Pessimistic time and Most likely time
B.
Pessimistic time, Optional time, Maximum time
C.
Optimistic time, Efficient time, Most likely time
D.
Minimax time, Optimistic time and harmonic time

Question 19

Who introduced the bar charts?

A.
Williams henry
B.
Henry Gantt
C.
Jane Gantt
D.
None of the Above

Question 20

The full form of CPM is

A.
Critical Path Method
B.
Control Path Method
C.
Critical Plan Management
D.
Control Path Management

Question 21

In bar charts, which color is used to show the actual progress?

A.
Red
B.
Yellow
C.
Blue
D.
Green

Question 22

Which of the following is used to represent activity in a network diagram?

A.
Circles
B.
Squares
C.
Arrows
D.
Any of the above

Question 23

Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software development?

A.
PERT
B.
CPM
C.
CMM
D.
Both PERT and CPM

Question 24

A horizontal bar chart that shows project tasks against a calendar is called

A.
Milestone
B.
Goal
C.
Gantt Chart
D.
PERT Chart

Question 25

The statistical tool that depicts a project’s tasks and the relationships between those tasks is known as

A.
Milestone
B.
Goal
C.
Gantt Chart
D.
PERT Chart

Question 26

Which of the following are the process of project planning?

A.
Define the project
B.
Develop a project Plan
C.
Identify and acquire resources
D.
All of the Above

Question 27

Classification of projects on the basis of as matrix, functional or projectized comes under

A.
Organizational structure
B.
Phase of development
C.
Purpose
D.
All of the above

Question 28

Which of the following focus on day-to-day business operations and are designed to improve efficiency and productivity.

A.
Operational projects
B.
Tactical projects
C.
Strategic projects
D.
Portfolio projects

Question 29

Which of the following address specific business needs and objectives, and are usually shorter-term in nature.

A.
Operational projects
B.
Tactical projects
C.
Strategic projects
D.
Portfolio projects

Question 30

Which of the following align with the overall goals and mission of the organization, and are usually longer-term in nature

A.
Operational projects
B.
Tactical projects
C.
Strategic projects
D.
Portfolio projects

Question 31

Which of the following are a collection of projects that are grouped together to achieve specific organizational objectives?

A.
Operational projects
B.
Tactical projects
C.
Strategic projects
D.
Portfolio projects

Question 32

Which of the following is true about Resource leveling and smoothing?

A.
Are techniques used in project management to ensure that resources are used efficiently and effectively throughout the duration of a project
B.
Resource leveling involves adjusting the schedule of a project to ensure that resources are not over-allocated at any point in time
C.
Resource smoothing involves making small adjustments to the schedule of a project to ensure that resources are used in a more even and consistent way over time
D.
All of the Above

Question 33

Which of the following are methods for resource leveling?

A.
Manual Levelling
B.
Software based leveling
C.
Heuristic leveling
D.
All of the Above

Question 34

Heuristic leveling means

A.
Using a set of rules or guidelines to adjust the schedule of a project
B.
Using specialized software to automatically adjust the schedule of a project
C.
Manually adjusting the schedule of a project
D.
None of the Above

Question 35

Manual leveling means

A.
Using a set of rules or guidelines to adjust the schedule of a project
B.
Using specialized software to automatically adjust the schedule of a project
C.
Manually adjusting the schedule of a project
D.
None of the Above

Question 36

Software based leveling means

A.
Using a set of rules or guidelines to adjust the schedule of a project
B.
Using specialized software to automatically adjust the schedule of a project
C.
Manually adjusting the schedule of a project
D.
None of the Above

Question 37

Which of the following needs to be remembered during resource leveling?

A.
Identify critical resources and Understand resource constraints
B.
Analyze resource allocation and Prioritize tasks
C.
Adjust the schedule and Monitor progress
D.
All of the Above

Question 38

Which of the following is true?

A.
Resource smoothing is a way to optimize the use of resources over the duration of the project
B.
Resource leveling focuses on ensuring that resources are used efficiently throughout the project
C.
Both techniques can be used together to improve project outcomes.
D.
All of the Above

Question 39

Which of the following ensure that the project stays on track and achieves its objectives?

A.
Monitoring
B.
Evaluation
C.
Controlling
D.
All of the above

Question 40

Monitoring refers to

A.
Process of tracking the progress of the project and comparing it to the project plan
B.
Assessing the effectiveness of the project and determining whether it is achieving its intended objectives
C.
The process of making adjustments to the project plan as needed to ensure that the project stays on track.
D.
All of the Above

Question 41

Evaluation refers to

A.
Ongoing process of tracking the progress of the project and comparing it to the project plan
B.
Assessing the effectiveness of the project and determining whether it is achieving its intended objectives
C.
The process of making adjustments to the project plan as needed to ensure that the project stays on track.
D.
All of the Above

Question 42

Controlling refers to

A.
Ongoing process of tracking the progress of the project and comparing it to the project plan
B.
Assessing the effectiveness of the project and determining whether it is achieving its intended objectives
C.
The process of making adjustments to the project plan as needed to ensure that the project stays on track.
D.
All of the Above

Question 43

Which of the following is not a project management goal?

A.
Keeping overall costs within budget
B.
Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
C.
Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
D.
Avoiding customer complaints

Question 44

Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

A.
Specification delays
B.
Product competition
C.
Testing
D.
None of the Above

Question 45

The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as

A.
Project Management
B.
Manager life cycle
C.
Project Management Life Cycle
D.
Project Management Cycle

Question 46

A 66.6% risk is considered as

A.
Low
B.
Nominal
C.
Moderate
D.
High

Question 47

Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

A.
Practitioners
B.
Project
C.
Customers
D.
Team Leader

Question 48

Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system?

A.
Internship management
B.
Change management
C.
Version management
D.
Control Management

Question 49

Identify the sub-process of process improvement

A.
Process introduction
B.
Process analysis
C.
De-process
D.
Process distribution

Question 50

Which of the following are the components of risk management?

A.
Risk Assessment
B.
Risk Control
C.
Risk Ranking
D.
All of the above

Question 51

Which of the following is a set of activities which are networked in an order and aimed towards achieving the goals of a project?

A.
Project
B.
Process
C.
Project Management
D.
All of the Above

Question 52

Risk mitigation can be done through a variety of strategies like

A.
Implementing controls and transferring risk
B.
Accepting risk and avoiding risk
C.
All of the Above
D.
None of the Above

Question 53

Which of the following is correct?

A.
Risk mitigation is an ongoing process and should be regularly reviewed and updated as the project progresses
B.
Risk mitigation is the process of reducing the likelihood or impact of a potential risk
C.
Project risk analysis is the process of identifying, assessing, and prioritizing potential risks to a project's success
D.
All of the Above

Question 54

What are the steps that can be taken when deciding to accept a risk?

A.
Identify and assess the risk
B.
Prioritize the risk and develop a response plan
C.
Communicate the decision and monitor the risk
D.
All of the Above

Question 55

Quantitative analysis involves

A.
Measurement of uncertainty in cost and time estimates
B.
Probabilistic combination of individual uncertainties
C.
Both of the Above
D.
None of the Above

Question 56

Normally, who is responsible for Risk Management?

A.
Project Team
B.
Developer
C.
Production Team
D.
None of the Above

Question 57

What is the full form of RE?

A.
Risk Expense
B.
Risk Exposure
C.
Risk Evaluation
D.
None of the Above

Question 58

Risk Exposure (RE)

A.
RE = Probability \* Impact
B.
RE = 0.1 \* Probability - Impact
C.
RE = Probability / Impact
D.
RE = Impact

Question 59

What is risk?

A.
Negative consequence that could occur
B.
Negative consequence that will occur
C.
Negative consequence that must occur
D.
Negative consequence that shall occur

Question 60

What assesses the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revises these when you learn more about the risk?

A.
Risk monitoring
B.
Risk planning
C.
Risk analysis
D.
Risk identification

Question 61

The impact of the risk will be reduced by means of which strategy?

A.
Avoidance strategies
B.
Minimization strategies
C.
Contingency plans
D.
All of the mentioned

Question 62

Which of the following is not a risk management activity?

A.
Risk Assessment
B.
Risk Generation
C.
Risk Control
D.
All of the Above

Question 63

______ is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project plan?

A.
Risk identification
B.
Performance risk
C.
Support risk
D.
Risk projection

Question 64

The primary purpose of tender is to

A.
To select the best bid based on cost
B.
To select the best bid based on quality
C.
To select the best bid based on experience
D.
All of the Above

Question 65

The process of Tender in Nepal is governed by

A.
Public Procurement Act, 2062
B.
Public Procurement Act, 2063
C.
Public Procurement Act, 2064
D.
Public Procurement Act, 2065

Question 66

The tender Process in Nepal typically follows

A.
Invitation to Tender, Bid Submission, Evaluation of Bids, Award of Contract and Implementation of project
B.
Invitation to Tender, Evaluation of Bids, Bid Submission, Award of Contract and Implementation of project
C.
Invitation to Tender, Bid Submission, Award of Contract Evaluation of Bids, and Implementation of project
D.
None of the Above

Question 67

Types of Bid that are commonly used in Nepal are

A.
Open Bid and Limited Bid
B.
Single Source bid
C.
Two stage bid
D.
All of the Above

Question 68

Which of the following office monitors the procurement process and takes necessary action to prevent any malpractice, corruption, or irregularities in the procurement process?

A.
FCGO
B.
PPMO
C.
PPPO
D.
None of these

Question 69

In which case international level bidding is applicable in Nepal?

A.
Where the goods or construction works as requisitioned by a Public Entity are not available under competitive price from more than one construction entrepreneur or supplier within the State of Nepal
B.
Where no bid was submitted in response to invitation to national level bidding for the procurement
C.
Where under an agreement entered into with a donor party, foreign goods or construction works have to be procured from foreign assistance source
D.
All of the Above

Question 70

A Public Entity should prepare a cost estimate of any procurement

A.
Up to twenty five thousand rupees
B.
Above twenty five thousand rupees
C.
Both of the Above
D.
None of the Above

Question 71

The full form of EOI is

A.
Expression of Interest
B.
Expression of Information
C.
Eligibility of Information
D.
None of the Above

Question 72

The common criteria that may include in EOI are

A.
Eligibility and Experience
B.
Financial Capability and Technical Capability
C.
Mandatory documents to be submitted and the time frame for EOI submission
D.
All of the Above

Question 73

A Public Entity in procuring goods by selecting any method have to procure Nepali goods even if the price of the goods produced in Nepal is higher by ......percent than the foreign goods

A.
Upto 5 percent
B.
Upto 10 percent
C.
Upto 20 percent
D.
Upto 25 percent

Question 74

To procure a consultancy service valuing more than......a Public Entity shall have to invite a expression of interest by publishing a notice

A.
One Million
B.
Two Million
C.
Three Million
D.
Four Million

Question 75

If a consultancy service of an amount valuing more than......requires to be procured, generally an international level expression of interest

A.
One Million
B.
Two Million
C.
Three Million
D.
Four Million

Question 76

A Public Entity shall have to procure from the individual, firm, organization or company who have obtained

A.
Permanent Account Number
B.
Value Added Tax registration certificate from the Inland Revenue Office
C.
Both of the Above
D.
None of the Above

Question 77

A Public Entity shall have to make available pre-qualification documents to an interested individual, firm, organization or a company by charging, on the basis of the cost incurred to prepare such documents, from

A.
One thousand to fifteen thousand Rupees.
B.
Two thousand to fifteen thousand Rupees.
C.
Three thousand to fifteen thousand Rupees.
D.
Four thousand to fifteen thousand Rupees.

Question 78

The cost estimate of a construction work of up to ...... shall be specified in the notice of invitation to bid.

A.
Five million Rupees
B.
Six million Rupees
C.
Seven million Rupees
D.
Eight million Rupees

Question 79

A bidder shall have to submit along with a bid, a bid security of at least ...... of the quoted amount of his/her bid in cash or the bid security issued by a commercial bank equivalent to that amount

A.
1.5 percent
B.
2 percent
C.
2.5 percent
D.
3 percent

Question 80

Bid Validity Period For a bid or proposal of consultancy service with cost estimate of up to one hundred million Rupees

A.
90 days
B.
100 days
C.
110 days
D.
120 days

Question 81

Bid Validity Period for a bid or proposal of a consultancy service with cost estimate whatsoever above one hundred million Rupee

A.
90 days
B.
100 days
C.
110 days
D.
120 days

Question 82

Authority to Approve the Bid Up to ten million Rupees

A.
Chief of the Office of Gazetted Third Class
B.
Chief of the Office of Gazetted Second Class
C.
Chief of the Office of Gazetted First Class
D.
Chief of Department

Question 83

Authority to Approve the Bid Up to thirty million Rupees

A.
Chief of the Office of Gazetted Third Class
B.
Chief of the Office of Gazetted Second Class
C.
Chief of the Office of Gazetted First Class
D.
Chief of Department

Question 84

Authority to Approve the Bid Up to seventy million Rupees

A.
Chief of the Office of Gazetted Third Class
B.
Chief of the Office of Gazetted Second Class
C.
Chief of the Office of Gazetted First Class
D.
Chief of Department

Question 85

Authority to Approve the Bid more than seventy million Rupees

A.
Chief of the Office of Gazetted Third Class
B.
Chief of the Office of Gazetted Second Class
C.
Chief of the Office of Gazetted First Class
D.
Chief of Department

Question 86

If a consultancy service of an amount valuing more than ...... requires to be procured, generally an international level expression of interest shall be invited.

A.
Ten million Rupees
B.
Twenty million Rupees
C.
Thirty million Rupees
D.
Forty million Rupees

Question 87

The number of consultants to be passed on EOI at least how many consultants must be short list for further invitation to proposal

A.
2
B.
3
C.
4
D.
5

Question 88

Provision Concerning Direct Procurement of Expendable or capital goods, or consultancy or other services or construction work valuing up to ...... may be directly procured

A.
One hundred fifty thousand Rupees
B.
One hundred Sixty thousand Rupees
C.
One hundred Seventy thousand Rupees
D.
One hundred Eighty thousand Rupees

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